Overshooting Model - Outline of The Model

Outline of The Model

That is to say, the position of the IS curve is determined by the volume of injections into the flow of income and by the competitiveness of Home country output measured by the real exchange rate.

The first assumption is essentially saying that the IS curve (demand for goods) position is in some way dependent on the real effective exchange rate Q.

That is -> In this case, net exports is dependent on Q (as Q goes up, foreign countries goods are relatively more expensive, and home countries goods are cheaper, therefore there is higher net exports).

If financial markets can adjust instantaneously and investors are risk neutral, we can say the uncovered interest rate parity (UIP) holds at all times. That is, the equation r = r* + Δse holds at all times (explanation of this formula is below).

It is clear, then, that an expected depreciation/appreciation offsets any current difference in the exchange rate. If r > r*, the exchange rate (domestic price of one unit of foreign currency) is expected to increase. That is, the domestic currency depreciates relative to the foreign currency.

In the long run, the exchange rate (s) will equal the long run equilibrium exchange rate,(ŝ).

Formal Notation

r = r* +Δse (uncovered interest rate parity - approximation)

Δse = θ(ŝ – s) (Expectations of market participants)

m - p = ky-lr (Demand/Supply on money)

yd = h(s-p) = h(q) (demand for the home country output)

þ = π(yd- ŷ)(proportional change in prices with respect to time) dP/dTime

from the above we can derive the following (using algebraic substitution)

p = a - lθ(ŝ - s)

þ = π

In equilibrium

yd = ŷ (demand for output equals the long run demand for output)

from this we substitute getting ŷ/h = ŝ - p_hat That is in the long run, the only variable that affects the real exchange rate is growth in capacity output)

Also, Δse = 0 (that is, in the long run the expected change of inflection is equal to zero)

when we substitute into, we get r = r* sub that into and we get

p_hat = m -kŷ + l r*

taking & together, we get:

ŝ = ŷ(h-1 - k) + m +lr*

comparing &, we can see that the only difference between them is the intercept (that is the slope of both is the same). This tells us that given a rise in money stock pushes up the long run values of both in equally proportional measures, the real exchange rate (q) must remain at he same value as it was before the market shock. Therefore, the properties of the model at the beginning are preserved in long run equilibrium, the original equilibrium we had was stable.

Short run disequilibrium

The standard approach is to rewrite the basic equations & in terms of the deviation from the long run equilibrium). In equilibrium implies 0 = π If we subtract this from we get

þ = π - This gives us the direction and movement of the exchange rate

In equilibrium, hold, that is - is the difference from equilibrium.

p - p_hat = -lθ(s-ŝ) This gives us the line upon which the exchange rate must be moving (the line with slope -lθ.

Both & together allow us to demonstrate that the exchange rate will be moving towards the long run equilibrium exchange rate, whilst being in a position that implies that it was initially overshot. From the assumptions above, it is possible to derive the following situation. This demonstrated the overshooting and subsequent readjustment. In the graph on the top left, So is the initial long run equilibrium, S1 is the long run equilibrium after the injection of extra money and S2 is where the exchange rate initially jumps to (thus overshooting). When this overshoot takes place, it begins to move back to the new long run equilibrium S1.