Proof
Choose any . For each, define . We claim that for all, the following is true:
To show this, we will proceed using induction. The above statement is true for the case, for
Suppose the above statement holds for some . Then we have
The inductive assumption is used going from line three to line four. By the principle of mathematical induction, for all, the above claim is true.
Let . Since, we can find a large so that
Using the claim above, we have that for any, with ,
The inequality in line one follows from repeated applications of the triangle inequality; the series in line four is a geometric series with and hence it converges. The above shows that is a Cauchy sequence in and hence convergent by completeness. So let . We make two claims: (1) is a fixed point of . That is, ; (2) is the only fixed point of in .
To see (1), we take the limit of both sides of the recurrence ,
Since T is a contraction mapping, it is continuous, so we may take the limit inside: . Thus, .
To show (2), we suppose that also satisfies . Then
Remembering that, the above implies that, which shows that, whence by positive definiteness, and the proof is complete.
The above is essentially Banach's original proof. What follows is a considerably simpler proof that appeared recently in the Journal of Fixed Point Theory and its Application (see reference).
By the triangle inequality, for any x and y, in X,
so subtracting the middle term on the right from both sides and dividing by the positive quantity (1-q) we get the ``Fundamental Contraction Inequality":
and we note that if x and y are both fixed points then this implies that d(x,y) = 0, so x =y, proving that has at most one fixed point. Now define the mapping by composing with itself n times and note by induction that it satisfies a Lipschitz condition with constant . It remains to show that for any, the sequence is Cauchy and so converges to a point of X, which as noted above is clearly a fixed point of . If in the Fundamental Inequality we replace x and y by and, we find that
or
and since q<1, the right hand side of this latter inequality converges to zero as n and m tend to infinity, proving that is Cauchy. Note also that letting m tend to infinity in the latter inequality gives the inequality derived in the first proof that gives the rate at which converges to .
Read more about this topic: Banach Fixed-point Theorem
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